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points by rnadomvirlabe 3 days ago | 0 comments
Statistician here. I pulled up the article that the press release seems to mention: https://academic.oup.com/eurjpc/article/27/18/1986/6125530

For all cause mortality among people without cardiovascular disease, they split into groups of men and women and then further into groups of no coffee, filter only, both brews, and unfiltered only.

For both men and women without preexisting cardiovascular disease, both brews had the lowest all cause mortality. I'd expect that "both" would be between "only filter" and "only unfiltered". It isn't because "both" is a separate population from the "only" groups, indicating that confounding may be substantial here. Nevertheless, for people without preexisting CVD, all but one of the confidence intervals for the hazard ratio is entirely below 1, and the unfiltered for men includes 1. I wouldn't draw any strong conclusions from this.

My recommendation would be to just drink your coffee, take your blood pressure regularly to see if you're hypertensive, and check your cholesterol with labs if you're regularly hypertensive.

[–] ShinyLeftPad 2 days ago
It could be because people who drink no coffee already do it because of a condition (not necessarily cardiovascular), so their mortality is higher.
[–] Melatonic 2 days ago
Or coffee drinkers are more active and doing things